NISM - Series V A - Model Question Bank with Answer Key
1. Units’ of_____________ must be listed on the stock exchange.
a. Sector funds
b. Arbitrage funds
c. Close ended funds
d. Liquid funds
2. Open-ended schemes generally offer exit option to investors through a stock exchange.
a. True
b. False
3. Sector funds invest in a diverse range of sectors.
a. True
b. False
4. High yield bond schemes invest in junk bonds.
a. True
b. False
5. Investment objective is closely linked to ________.
a. Scheme
b. Option
c. Plan
d. SIP
6. The assets of the mutual fund are held by ______.
a. AMC
b. Trustees
c. Custodian
d. Registrar
7. Minimum networth requirement for a new AMC is _______.
a. Rs 50 crore
b. Rs 5 crore
c. Rs 4 crore
d. Rs 10 crore
8. AMC directors are appointed with the permission of Trustees.
a. True
b. False
9. Most investor service centres are offices of _______.
a. Trustees
b. Registrar
c. Custodian
d. Fund Accountant
10. Fund accounting activity of a scheme is to be compulsorily outsourced.
a. True
b. False
11. SEBI regulates __________.
a. Mutual Funds
b. Depositories
c. Registrar & Transfer Agents
d. All of the above
12. Investment objective defines the broad investment charter.
a. True
b. False
13. Statement of Account is to be sent to investors within ___ days of NFO closure.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 15
14. Within ___ days of dividend declaration, warrants will have to be sent to investors.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30
15. Unit holders can hold their units in demat form.
a. True
b. False
16. NFOs other than ELSS can be open for a maximum of _____.
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
17. Legally, SAI is part of the SID.
a. True
b. False
18. Offer documents of mutual fund schemes are approved by SEBI.
a. True
b. False
19. Application form is attached to ______.
a. SID
b. SAI
c. KIM
d. None of the above
20. KIM has to be updated every 6 months.
a. True
b. False
21. Institutional distributors build reach through ______.
a. Employees
b. Agents
c. Sub-brokers
d. Any of the above
22. The maximum initial commission that a scheme can pay to distributors is ____.
a. Nil
b. 0.05%
c. 1%
d. 2%
23. The distributor can charge a fee from the investor.
a. True
b. False
24. Stock exchange brokers are permitted to distribute mutual funds without the requirement of passing the certifying test.
a. True
b. False
25. Trail commissions are linked to valuation of portfolio in the market.
a. True
b. False
26. Net assets of a scheme are nothing but its investment portfolio.
a. True
b. False
27. The difference between NAV and re-purchase price is _______.
a. Entry Load
b. Exit Load
c. Expense
d. Dividend Stripping
28. NAV of income funds is to be calculated upto ___ decimals.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
29. Securities Transaction Tax is applicable to Equity Schemes.
a. True
b. False
30. Wealth tax is payable at the applicable rates on equity mutual fund units.
a. True
b. False
31. For a debt scheme with corpus
of Rs. 250 cr, what is the maximum amount that can be charged by the
AMC as recurring expense, if all moneys have come from the Top 15
cities?
a. Rs. 5.625 cr
b. Rs. 5 cr
c. Rs. 4.625 cr
d. Rs. 5.25 cr
32. As per SEBI regulations, foreign nationals are permitted to invest in Indian mutual funds, subject to KYC.
a. True
b. False
33. PAN Card is not required for
mutual fund investments below Rs 50,000 per mutual fund per financial
year, where payment is in cash.
a. True
b. False
34. Investments in mutual fund can be made using _____.
a. Cheque / DD
b. Remittance
c. ASBA
d. Any of the above
35. Cut-off timing guidelines are not applicable for _____.
a. NFOs
b. International Funds
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
36. STP is a combination of SIP and SWP.
a. True
b. False
37. Investors’ KYC details are stored in the server of _____.
a. AMC
b. AMFI
c. SEBI
d. KRA
38. Fundamental analysis is evaluation of the strength of the company’s price-volume charts.
a. True
b. False
39. In a top-down approach, sector allocation precedes stock selection.
a. True
b. False
40. Which of the following is a truly international asset class?
a. Real Estate
b. Equity
c. Debt
d. Gold
41. Loads and taxes may account for the difference between scheme returns and investor returns.
a. True
b. False
42. The most appropriate measure of returns for a scheme in
existence for several years is ______.
a. Simple Return
b. Dividend Return
c. Annualised Return
d. CAGR
43. Risk can be measured by ______.
a. Variance
b. Standard Deviation
c. Beta
d. Any of the above
44. Equity markets are more predictable in the long term than the short.
a. True
b. False
45. Arbitrage funds are meant to give better equity risk exposure.
a. True
b. False
46. The comparable for a liquid scheme is _______.
a. Equity scheme
b. Balanced Scheme
c. Gilt Fund
d. Savings Bank account
47. Which of the following aspects of portfolio would an investor in a debt scheme give most importance?
a. Sector selection
b. Stock selection
c. Weighted Average Maturity
d. Number of securities in portfolio
48. Mutual fund ranking and rating amount to the same.
a. True
b. False
49. More than 50% of the wealth of Indians is held in physical assets.
a. True
b. False
50. Gold Futures are superior to ETF Gold as a vehicle for life-long investment in gold.
a. True
b. False
51. As regards wealth tax, ETF Gold is superior to physical gold.
a. True
b. False
52. The National Pension System is regulated by ______.
a. SEBI
b. IRDA
c. PFRDA
d. AMFI
53. An investor under the National Pension System can choose which of the following asset classes?
a. Equities
b. Corporate debt
c. Government Securities
d. All of the above
54. Today’s costs can be translated into future requirement of funds using the formula:
a. A = P X (1 + i)n
b. A = P / (1 + i)n
c. P = A n X (1 + i)
d. P = A n X (1 + i)
55. Providing funds for a daughter’s marriage is an example of _______.
a. Goal-oriented Financial Plan
b. Comprehensive Financial Plan
c. Financial goal
d. None of the above
56. According to the Certified
Financial Planner – Board of Standards (USA), the first stage in
financial planning is _____________.
a. Analyse and Evaluate Client’s Financial Status
b. Establish and Define the Client-Planner Relationship
c. Gather Client Data, Define Client Goals
d. Develop and Present Financial Planning Recommendations and / or Options
57. Investor can get into long term investment commitments in ________.
a. Distribution Phase
b. Transition Phase
c. Inter-generational Phase
d. Accumulation Phase
58. Distribution phase of Wealth Cycle is a parallel of Retirement phase of Life Cycle.
a. True
b. False
59. Risk appetite of investors is assessed through _______.
a. Risk Appetizers
b. Asset Allocators
c. Risk Profilers
d. Financial Plan
60. The objective of asset allocation is risk management.
a. True
b. False
61. The asset allocation that is worked out for an investor based on risk profiling is called _______.
a. Tactical Asset Allocation
b. Fixed Asset Allocation
c. Flexible Asset Allocation
d. Strategic Asset Allocation
62. Model portfolios are a waste of time for financial planners.
a. True
b. False
63. How much equity would you suggest for a young well settled unmarried individual
a. 100%
b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 40%
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